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Glossolalia - An Honest Biblical ExaminationSubmitted by matt on Mon, 2006-03-13 10:29.
IntroductionFollowing a recent conversation with my sister-in-law regarding what is most commonly known as "speaking in tongues", I endeavored to determine exactly what scripture has to say about the practice. I wanted to solidify my somewhat wobbly stance, having made study of it in times past but never coming to any firm conclusions. I am hesitant to cement a position into my personal beliefs unless I am sufficiently well-studied and unreservedly confident on the matter; and on this subject of tongues have several portions of scripture consistently given me pause. I also try to consider the implications and import of doctrines before drawing a "line in the sand" over them: Is it a salvation issue? Does it misrepresent or malign the character of God? Is it likely to lead Christians into grievous error or unduly repel or mislead non-Christians? Does it make light of sin? This line of questioning is important, as discernment is called for when deciding how hard and fast to hold a position. Some things are worth dividing over, some are not, and others are somewhere in between. And so a definitive answer on tongues was relegated to the "uncertain or unimportant (or both)" category of my theology, where other non-essentials, such as much of eschatology, largely reside. Basically, if I haven't studied it enough to make a thoroughly-educated decision, if it doesn't have a significant impact on life (see the questions above), and if it's not against the plain witness of the Word or conscience, I try to keep an open mind. After all, there are good Christians on both sides of many of these debates. In fact, I have many dear Christian friends of the charismatic persuasion, whose sincerity and faith are without question. But after some rather intense study and meditation, I have now arrived at an interpretation that I feel reflects the perspicuous meaning of the text, and represents the only truly harmonious solution. I hope it is not pretentious to relate that I feel a real insight into the intent and mindset of the author (in relation to the passage in 1 Corinthians). In fact, after puzzling over a particular few verses (for years, really), I experienced what I could only describe as a Spirit-led epiphany. But that is, of course, subjective, and although I found the whole thing quite edifying personally, what I really want to do is "reason from the scriptures"(Acts 17:2) on this subject of tongues. Reasoning from the ScripturesMerriam-Webster's Medical Dictionary defines glossolalia as: "profuse and often emotionally charged speech that mimics coherent speech but is usually unintelligible to the listener and that is uttered in some states of religious ecstasy and in some schizophrenic states." It's not a word heard often in Christian circles, but I thought it applicable, in order to distinguish between glossolalia and xenoglossia, which is the utterance of a normal human language not known by the speaker. By contrast, adherents would term glossolalial tongues as a "spirit", "angelic", or "prayer" language, unintelligible to man. To my knowledge, there isn't any real debate about the existence of xenoglossial tongues; so the question is: are there two types of tongues (xenoglossia and glossolalia), or only one (xenoglossia)? The debate is nearly as old as Christianity. Originating in 156 AD and persisting until the eighth century, the Montanist sect's ecstatic, experiential practices invite a comparison to the modern pentecostal movement. Today's charismatic churches are largely Wesleyan in descent, and began to emerge in the late 19th century. My primary text is from 1 Corinthians, however no discussion of tongues would be complete without a trip through Acts. The first and most prominent example of speaking in tongues is of course the Day of Pentecost:
This is obviously not a case of glossolalia, as we're told the speech was understood directly by the people. There is nothing to indicate the apostles babbled in a non-human language, the people merely hearing their own language, as some say. The Greek word translated "tongues" here is "glossa", meaning simply "the language or dialect used by a particular people distinct from that of other nations"(Thayer's and Smith's) or "a language (specifically, one naturally unacquired)"(Strong's); surely if the author meant to communicate an occurrence of glossolalia, he would have used better word choice. Also note the word is in the plural form ("tongues"); if the apostles were all speaking one "angelic language", rather than multiple distinct human languages, we'd expect to see it in the singular ("tongue"). Rather, the most obvious meaning is the apostles were actually speaking these foreign human languages "as the Spirit was giving them utterance". The purpose of all this seems clear: a sign and witness to the unbelievers, which we'll later see is confirmed in 1 Corinthians. And although many were amazed and were no doubt among the three thousand saved later in the chapter, there were yet scoffers (in line with John 1:11). It is also interesting to note that many of the people gathered in Jerusalem that day would have also understood the lingua franca of the day, Greek. However, the message delivered in Greek certainly would not have commanded the same miraculous weight, provided the same unique personal touch of hearing the Word in one's own dialect, nor fulfilled the prophecies of Matthew 16 and Isaiah 28 (as we'll see later). The next mention of tongues is in Acts 10:
We are given no indication of whether this is glossolalial or xenoglossial tongues, so neither position finds support here. As an aside, note this is the first time we see gentiles saved, and it would appear tongues had a unique purpose here to convince the Jewish believers of that fact. The Indwelling of the Spirit is most certainly not always evidenced by tongues, as some say (no mention of tongues in relation to receipt of the Spirit in John 20:22, Acts 2:41, 8:5-25, 16:31-34). The Bible teaches quite the opposite, in fact; we are told every believer has the Spirit (Romans 8:9; 1 Corinthians 12:13; Ephesians 1:13-14), but not every believer speaks in tongues (1 Corinthians 12:29-31). The last mention of tongues in Acts is in chapter 19:
Again, no specification of what type of tongues. This could be either another human language or an unintelligible "prayer language". We are not told which. I want to also touch on the very first tongues reference in the New Testament:
Although used by fanatics to promote some strange doctrines, this is simply a prophecy which we see fulfilled shortly thereafter in Acts. Admittedly, we don't have recorded any instances of apostles drinking poison, but that is not to say it didn't happen, and there is certainly no encouragement here to purposefully attempt harmful activities. And as with the last two passages from Acts, there is no indication one way or another of which type of tongues is referenced. Before moving on to 1 Corinthians, I want to comment on one more commonly-invoked passage:
I'll simply note what is not said here:
Thus neither glossolalia or xenoglossia seem to be implied here, which means the passage is really not relevant to the discussion. Though it is comforting to know we have a such a Helper who can transcend the limitations of language and sound waves and human infirmity! Moving on to Paul's first letter to the Corinthians, we find really the only direct teaching about the gift of tongues, and so 1 Corinthians 12-14 will be our main text. I'll present the scripture and intersperse my comments as appropriate.
Not to be remiss or outdone by the pagans, Paul endeavors to equip his flock with guidance in all things spiritual. There is also perhaps the implication that the Corinthians, left to themselves, were doing a pretty poor job.
Corresponding to the order given here and throughout this section, tongues are thoroughly de-emphasized as the least of the gifts.
The distribution of gifts is the will of the Spirit, not the will of man. One questions the legitimacy of environments which pressure people toward certain gifts. We do not procure them, they are imparted.
Put simply, all Christians have the Spirit.
Again, it is for God in his infinite wisdom to mete out gifts. This is a scathing indictment against those who would say a person does not have the Spirit unless he has exhibited a particular gift. Identify your gift, use it for the glory of God and at His leading, and be content.
Paul makes an analogy to the physical body here. All parts of the physical body have their function and place, as do gifts in the Church. Even the private and unpresentable body parts are specially honored with modesty and have a vital role, though they are not seen.
We are a family, one body, and since we are interdependent, we affect each other.
Again the ordering of the gifts. One questions the legitimacy of environments that promote the lesser gifts to prominence over the greater ones.
As mentioned before, although all Christians have the Spirit, all Christians do not speak in tongues. The idea that tongues necessarily evidence the baptism of the Spirit is unscriptural.
An over-emphasis of lesser gifts is unscriptural. Let us be mindful that our emphases do not come to the point of error.
This verse is often employed in support of glossolalial tongues. However, it would surely be unwise to infer doctrine from such a passing reference! Paul here makes his point, as he often does, through exaggeration to the point of absurdity. There is no support here for an "angelic language" any more than for a man actually knowing "all mysteries and all knowledge" or "removing mountains", as in the next verse. Documenting or establishing normative practice could not be further from view.
Gifts are important, but let us put things into perspective! What is most important? Love.
This passage is used by cessationists to support the idea that "signs" gifts ceased with the apostolic age. The claim is that "the perfect" is scripture, and once the canon was complete, there was no longer a need for these gifts. This argument is weak, and depends entirely on that definition of "the perfect". If "the perfect" refers instead to the second coming of Christ, this interpretation is invalid. And since we are not told directly nor given any definite clues to the identity of "the perfect", it is rash to deduce concrete doctrine from this passage.
Paul speaks of maturity here. The spiritually immature will elevate gifts unduly, but the mature Christian keeps his priorities straight.
As with anything, there must be balance. Gifts have a place in Christian life. However, they must not receive undue focus, and the lesser gifts must be treated as such.
It is crucial to consider audience and scope in interpreting this verse. Paul is writing to Christians about their interaction with other Christians in a corporate worship (church) setting. If I stood up next Sunday and undertook -- in Polish -- a brilliant speech on the many glories of God, the only one who would understand it would be God himself. I don't know Polish, and I'm fairly sure nobody at my church knows it either. So although I uttered a normal human language, it would be a complete mystery to myself and the congregation. And so it was back then as well. The believers native to any given area (in this case Corinth) would have all spoken a common language/dialect (in this case Doric Greek) and thus believers at any given assembly shared a common tongue. Keep in mind there were no cathedrals or church buildings at this time in history, and believers met in each other's houses, which is a fairly private setting. Also remember the church at Corinth was made up of Corinthians -- people local to Corinth -- and Corinth was Greek long before being conquered by the Romans, thus being well established in the language. This is in stark contrast to public preaching or missionary work, such as the Day of Pentecost, where people of many different lands and languages were gathered. Within the church, anything besides the local language would be understood by few or none of the people ("does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands"), whereas outside of the church, the application is obvious.
Prophesying here is generally understood as teaching or preaching the Word (speaking "for edification and exhortation and consolation"). It would indeed be quite an experience for myself if I stood up and delivered a Spirit-led speech in Polish, however, it wouldn't be profitable to those listening, since they wouldn't understand a word. Conversely, if I delivered a Spirit-led and scripturally-sound message in English, we'd all benefit from hearing, and more importantly, understanding, the Word.
People are not edified unless they understand what is said. The main idea here is that, when gathered together as a congregation, people are to be edified. There is no profit in listening to someone babble in a language nobody understands. Yes, tongues are a valid gift. However, they are a lesser gift, and there are guidelines to be followed (more on that later). The Corinthians had clearly been abusing this gift of tongues, and Paul writes this to set them straight. This is a corrective section in a corrective epistle (see 1 Cor 1:11, 3:1-3, 4:21, et al).
I believe the meaning here is twofold:
As musical instruments must be played properly and with skill, so must the tongue be employed to utter speech beneficial to those who hear!
Paul knows the Corinthians have a tendancy toward overzealousness in this area and encourages them to apply their zeal properly and unselfishly.
...otherwise, it is of no use to anyone but the speaker. Every part of the body must be productive, or the whole suffers.
Without engaging the mind, even he who speaks in tongues is not fully edified. The Christian faith is not primarily experiential, as to the gratifying of the flesh through emotion, but reasoned (Isa 1:18). For the flesh profits nothing (John 6:63) and the heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked (Job 17:9). We cannot trust the subjective, nor ground our faith upon it.
Again, tongues has its place. Paul himself possesses the gift, and makes frequent use of it, but in the proper venue. The best place for tongues is outside the church, as a witness and sign to unbelievers. Within the church we must engage the brain and produce rational speech for the edification of all. Paul again employs an exaggeration to drive this point home (verse 19). (Also note this is applicable against those who would conduct worship in languages not understood by the congretation, as the Papists did until the 1960's.) "All things are lawful, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful, but not all things edify. Let no one seek his own good, but that of his neighbor."(1 Cor 10:23-24)
The Corinthians are suffering from a case of acute spiritual immaturity (1 Cor 3:1-3, 4:21). Paul seeks to dissuade them from inordinate use of spiritual gifts, set up guidelines for their proper and effective use, and thus lead them out of error and toward maturity.
Here we come upon the verses which perplexed me for so long, and are I think the crux of the entire discourse. How can we reconcille the apparent contradiction between "tongues are for a sign ... to unbelievers" in verse 22 and "if the whole church ... speak[s] in tongues, and ... unbelievers enter, will they not say that you are mad?" in verse 23? If tongues are a sign for unbelievers, why are we then discouraged from speaking in tongues in the church, and rather encouraged to prophesy? And how can it be that "prophecy is a sign ... to those who believe" in verse 22, but verse 24 suggests we prophesy in the church in order to convict unbelievers? The key, as I mentioned earlier, is understanding the distinctions of audience and application between the verses in this text. With the obvious exception of verses 21-22, these are primarily instructions for Christians about their worship together. When glossolalia is in view, these verses do not make sense. An "angelic" or "prayer" language, if it existed, would be rather a sign for believers, who, being spiritual, could discern such things (1 Cor 2:14 - "But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God"); and prophecy would be the sign for unbelievers, as they would be hearing the Gospel (Rom 10:17 - "faith comes from hearing"). But it is the other way around, which means Paul can only be discussing xenoglossia. Xenoglossia is the only thing that fits. Tongues are a sign for unbelievers, as on the Day of Pentecost, because tongues provide a way to speak the Word to people of different languages than yourself, which is both miraculous (a sign) and effective (faith comes from hearing). Prophecy (teaching, preaching) is a sign to believers, as it is both edifying and provides a means to weigh a person's words against the Word, and thus their affinity with Christ (1 John 4:1 - "test the spirits"; Gal 1:8-9 - "if any man is preaching to you a gospel contrary to what you received, he is to be accursed!"). But this (verses 21 and 21) is clearly for outside the church. Within the church, though, tongues are not in view. They haven't a clear and useful purpose within a congregation of believers. Not only would they drive unbelievers away (verse 23), but they are not effective, unlike prophecy (teaching/preaching), to convict the heart (verse 24). This is for practical reasons as well. Out in the mission field, one will likely encounter men of varied languages and have use for such a gift. However, within the church, even an unbeliever who enters will most likely be a native, and share a common tongue with those gathered (how often do people who don't speak English visit your church?). And so that is the puzzle which vexed me for so many years, and the solution which gives me such confidence. The wisdom in these verses is astounding, as only in "solving" the apparent conundrum do we ascertain its true meaning, and in doing so invalidate errant interpretations which simply don't fit.
Tongues by itself is for without, rather than within, the church. Only when coupled with an interpretation, and therefore substance, may it be practiced in the assembly, and only in moderation. It is, after all, the least of the gifts.
This is an often ignored and violated guideline. Women are not to assume positions of teaching authority within the congregation (at least over men - 1 Tim 2:12). This preculdes women from standing up and offering a tongue in the church. Should such a thing occur, it cannot be from God, as it constitutes a clear violation of this scripture. Leaders of congregations who allow this are gravely remiss! This is not so easily discounted as "cultural" or outdated, as Paul calls this the "Lord's commandment" (verse 37) and gives a stern warning to recognize it (verse 38).
Tongues is a bona-fide, legitimate spiritual gift. However, prophecy is far and away the more important activity (verse 19, et al). Here and in verse 33 we have the idea of peace and propriety, rather than disorder and confusion. This is a picture altogether foreign to many (but not all) expressions of glossolalia I've witnessed, which I think is a testimony to the potential dangers of overly-experiential, ecstatic, emotional emphases -- such activities do not generally beget order! And since we have such a clear teaching, we must be critical of any environment which promotes disorder and confusion in the assembly. Conclusion and ApplicationPaul has a surprising amount to say about the gift of tongues, but it is notably for the sole purpose of rebuke and correction of its misuse, and to downplay its significance within the church. There is also a clear witness against the practice of glossolalia. Rather, the gift of tongues is always of the xenoglossial form, which is not only scripturally supported as we have seen, but practical as to its application. Let us heed this teaching and prove ourselves doers and not just hearers of the Word! (James 1:22) And so we are left with the challenge of how to apply these truths, the main question being: if glossolialia is not of God, of what is it? There are two choices left: man or satan. I am inclined to believe genuine believers exhibiting glossolalia are not channeling demons, but, caught up in emotion and pressured by peers, unwittingly create it from within. One must admit, it would be a simple matter to replicate that which is already nonsensical! In fact, I know someone who has confessed to that very thing, owing to the immense pressure of those around him, desiring inclusion (as we all do), and not wanting to "miss out" on anything. On the other hand, not all people within the visible church (lowercase "c") are genuine Christians, which means there may well be demonic activity involved in this practice. On the whole, I don't classify this issue in the same realm as vital points of orthodoxy such as the trinity, the atonement, or grace and faith. As I mentioned in the beginning, I do have close friends who are faithful brothers and sisters in Christ who attend pentecostal churches. It is is certainly not my intention to offend or provoke anyone in this, and I would not count this an issue worthy of hard and fast division. However, the Bible does have some things to say in this matter, and we must pursue accurate doctrine with all dilligence and honesty. Reasoning from the scriptures together with civility is never a bad thing! "But examine everything carefully; hold fast to that which is good"(1 Thes 5:21) ( categories: Theology )
First, the conclusion of my argument for 1 Cor 13:1 is "documenting or establishing normative practice could not be further from view" and that it is "unwise to infer doctrine from such a passing reference". As I commented on some of the passages from Acts and Matthew, there simply isn't enough information to know one way or another, so it must be harmonized with that which IS obvious and clear. And this is not a violent leap in logic by any means, since we know that passage is at least somewhat allegorical (note the immediately following verses), and we realize Paul's penchant for exaggeration. As I said, it's possible, but not wise to infer doctrine from an unclear passage. As I go back to read what I wrote, I think I was pretty clear on this, so I'll leave it how it is. Although if you have a specific suggestion on how I could make it clearer, please do suggest!
Second, it's true: Corinth was a center of trade and a prominent city, and would have surely had many languages/dialects represented, especially by passers-through. But that is precisely the point! Nestled well within the Roman Empire, the primary language of Corinth (and the Empire) at the time was Greek. And although merchants and travelers would have undoubtedly also spoken their native languages/dialects, Greek was the common tongue and was fairly universally understood. This was especially true for Corinth, which was a Greek city before being conqurered by the Romans. Corinthian believers assembling for worship privately (no cathedrals yet!) would have certainly all spoken Greek. And of course the local congregation of believers would be primarily made up of just that, locals! (But even someone attending from out of town would have likely understood it.) And that, as I said, is precisely the point. Gathering together for corporate worship is entirely different from preaching publicly in the town square, or even more so, a missionary journey (1 Cor 14:18). Being able to miraculously speak a foreign language would be useful, or at least a sign (even if you also understood Greek, as many of those gathered on the Day of Pentecost probably did, it would be no less amazing to hear the Word in your native dialect!), out in the world. But within the church, it's fairly useless as to the edification of the whole body. This is also a testament against the historical papist practice of doing Mass and scripture in other than the native tongue. I think perhaps I could clarify some of this and give a bit more background, so I'll work on that when I get a chance. And finally, as for Romans 8:26, I purposefully presented what the verse does NOT say! As with some of the others, it is sufficiently ambiguous so as not to lend itself to concrete interpretation. Nevertheless, my point #1 was that the phrase "too deep for words" is more precisely understood by examining the Greek definition, which uses concepts like "unutterable", "not to be uttered", and "unspeakable". If I utter something nonsensical, I am still uttering. If I speak something unintelligible, I am still speaking. It doesn't matter whether I'm speaking or uttering words or non-words. Seemingly, the idea presented by the Greek is that the Spirit's intercedings are not vocalized in any way, but are rather a spiritual presentation to God though a non-audible medium. It is a compare/contrast construction: although we pray with words, which are necessarily inadequate, the Spirit intercedes or "fills in the blanks" in ways that cannot be communicated with sound (or even language at all, which is a sound-based medium, even if "spoken" in the mind). That is why neither xenoglossia or glossolalia fit. Even a foriegn language is still spoken, even if it is not understood. My contention regards the lack of clarity in the translation. The KJV puts it more clearly: "but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered." I'll work on my presentation to make it more clear that I mean to imply that neither xenoglossia or glossolialia are in view, but rather this is NON SPOKEN, spiritual intercession. Thanks! Post new comment |
I think you have something here in your argument that the Scriptural references to speaking in tongues must all refer to xenoglossia. It does seem to fit all the passages where tongues are mentioned. I've learned something, I think. Good job! I'm convinced.
Your individual arguments are not air tight, however. For one thing, Paul's mention of the "tongues of angels" in 1 Cor. 13 may very well be poetry or hyperbole but it is at least conceivable that he refers to an actual nonhuman language. For another, Corinth was a very cosmopolitin place. Unlike Centralia or Chehalis, it would certainly be likely that visitors from other parts of the Roman empire, as happened on the Day of Pentecost, would be present in any given worship service and would be edified by hearing God's truth spoken in their native tongue, which might be differnt than what most Corinthians spoke. But that is minor point and doesn't really do damage to your argument. Finally, I'm not sure I entirely buy your interpretation of Romans 8:26 that "groanings too deep for words" cannot referr to glossilalia since groanings are audible sounds and "words" there conceivably could be a reference to sounds which are perceived as words by humans. If I were to ecstactically begin speaking some dialect from Papau New Guineau, it would sound like groanings to me (and probably to those around me), something gutteral and unintelligible, even sublinguistic, i.e., "too deep for words" from my perspective.